30 total now. pretty unbelievable. and rice's defense had kept them in the game since their pitcher pitches to contact allowing his defense to make plays for him. as opposed to bradford who struck out 10 or so. relied much less on his defense. clearly that obvious blown call is pretty inexcusable in my eyes on any level and I watch a lot of baseball. much less on this level. the previous call before I woulda swallowed either way. that was a close play not the following one.
when did i ever say that the call was the only reason we lost. read next time before you go saying people sound like bama fans. you can sit there and blow north carolina all you want, they played a good game, we scored more runs then they give up on average, we made plenty of errors that cost us runs, played like ****, and the fact of the matter is, if the right call is made in that situation, who knows what happens. ask south carolina, uci, and rice what can happen when this team smells blood in the water.
several umpires have told me that that is not a rule. Tie does not go to the runner. But, one also told me that it never is a tie. one gets there before the other. obviously, he never took physics.
tie does go to the runner if the rulebook is followed. now, "tie goes to the runner" is not written in the rulebook, but "the ball must arrive to the base before the runner" is. so if the ball and runner get to the bag at the same time (tie) then the ball did not beat the runner to the base, therefore runner is safe.
where did you see this? i just looked at the mlb rules and didn't see it put that way. i didn't read every word because i'm lazy that way. http://mlb.mlb.com/mlb/downloads/y2008/official_rules/07_the_runner.pdf this is the closest thing to the "tie goes to the runner" myth 7.01 A runner acquires the right to an unoccupied base when he touches it before he is out. He is then entitled to it until he is put out, or forced to vacate it for another runner legally entitled to that base.
Well, there has to be some rule for a tie. Though it probably happens fewer times than umpires rule it as a tie, there is going to be the rare time when the ball really does get there at the same time or, if not, the differential is too small for even freezeframe replay to pick up which got there first. If there is no "tie goes to the runner" rule, what do you rule in that situation?
I did read your posts and you do sound like a bama fan. But I do think it's funny that you have been here all of two weeks and you can tell me to "blow NC if I want". Once you are here a bit longer amigo, you will discover that not only am I not a huge fan of any of our opponents or rivals, but I do try to look at things realistically. The fact that you can't give NC credit for playing us better than anyone else did this year, instead equating it to " me blowing them", shows your blinders. I'm sure it comforts you, so again, good luck with that. You and I clearly disagree so why don't you just let it go? Do you just need the last word? Have at it then.
well, the ump that told me that there is no such thing as "tie goes to the runner" said he always calls the runner out unless he gets there first. i was "arguing" with him because he called me out and i KNOW the ball didn't beat me. he told me "show me in the rule book where it says tie goes to the runner."
